The question of whether Macbeth's tragic downfall is a result of his own actions or a result of fate or the prophecies given to him by the witches is definitely a matter of debate among readers and viewers. If you want to argue that Macbeth's fall is a result of his own actions, as it seems you do, you should be able to find plenty of evidence in the play to support your three main ideas.
You specifically asked about how to support the first main idea: Macbeth consciously chooses to listen to Lady Macbeth and allow her to influence his actions. In Act I, the letter that Macbeth sends to his wife when he is on his way home to Inverness after the battle is a useful starting point. From this letter, we can tell that Macbeth and Lady Macbeth are more like equal partners than what we might expect of an aristocratic couple at this time. Macbeth confides in his wife, revealing his encounter with the witches and their prophecy that he would be king. He must trust his wife to share this information with her. Further, he sends this information right away instead of waiting until he gets home, which may further indicate how important it is for her to know this and suggests that he may want his wife's help or advice. We might infer from Lady Macbeth's ability to persuade Macbeth to go through with murdering Duncan that Macbeth is used to consulting his wife and trusting in her opinion. Ultimately, he does look to her for guidance both before and after the murder. Remember that it is Lady Macbeth who has to go back and plant the daggers on the guards because Macbeth cannot bear to look on the crime scene again. He allows his wife to not only become involved but also to take the lead. It is important to contrast this, however, with the later murders. When Macbeth has Banquo and the Macduff family killed, he does not consult his wife, does not involve her or expect her to help him, and does not even want to tell her exactly what he is planning (though he does hint to her that he's planning something without her before the murder of Banquo). At this point, Macbeth is completely in control of his own actions and is no longer relying on the persuasion of his wife.
Regarding your final idea, it's important to remember that the witches' prophecies are vague. Even though they reveal that Macbeth will be king "hereafter," they never say that he must become king immediately or that he must murder the current king to gain the throne. Macbeth does choose to act quickly on the information given, and beyond the push given to him by his wife in Act I, Macbeth does seem to consciously choose to do whatever he thinks it takes to take the crown immediately. He will not wait for "chance to crown" him, as he says in Act I, scene iii.
No comments:
Post a Comment